"Theoretical Rake" and "hard Rake"

Today i was going to sign for a program and i came across this meaning and i quote " a player has $150.00 in his account, $75 of which is real money deposited through a payment method and $25 in promotional money, then his ratio of real to promo money is 75%. If his theoretical rake for a hand was $1 then his hard rake is $0.75."

This seemed kinda stupid to me i have some promos were a player gets up to 25% upfront bonus instant cash, if used in this program that would mean a 25% loss for me right?

Is this of any use except for the room to take money out of what affiliates could earn?

I have been going over this and i cant seem to get it to make since if one gets 1$ rake on the hand and is only paid 0.75 them the that means 25% less...

anyone can share some ideas or comments?

Yeah that sounds really weird to be honest. I mean you are correct as i have some deals where a player gets an instant bonus.

So if he deposits $75 he deposits $75 so what he has $75. If the room gives him a $25 instant bonus then that comes off the rake right.

So lets say we work on 40% rev share. 40% of $25 is $10. So as soon as he gets that $25 bonus your account is negative$10. Anything he rakes from all the money including the bonus is all lumped together. However there may be cash out restrictions on that $25 to stop players from bonus abuse..

It seems like they do it in a weird way. Where a player deposits $75 and he gets $25 promo money. But are you deducted from that promo money?

As its obvious when he plays your only making a portion of the 75% rake. This would mean if he rakes $1000 dollars in rake that $1000 is only worth $750.

You would lose $250 of rake (your percentage) when only $25 promo money is given to them... plus maybe lose out on the % of the 25 bonus.

It seems fishy to me, and I would check on it. For them to make it that difficult and call it hard rake and theoretical rake obv to me means another way to SHAVE your players rake while given the player a PRECEIVED benefit....

So what, for how long are you to work on this 75% method!!!??

What if he raked 10K??

Sounds like a dud to me mate!!

Steve

well i dont really tried it out so i cant say for how long this works like this. I gave the example of the upfront bonus but they must have some similar bonus were this aplys i just cant imagine how someone comes up with this concepts... promo or not money is money and when its raked its always rake promo money or no promo money.

Thanks for the input GFPC

Quote:

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Originally Posted by Viriatu

well i dont really tried it out so i cant say for how long this works like this. I gave the example of the upfront bonus but they must have some similar bonus were this aplys i just cant imagine how someone comes up with this concepts... promo or not money is money and when its raked its always rake promo money or no promo money.

Thanks for the input GFPC

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no problem mate.. anything i can do help...

Send me the program via pm i will check it out for you.

Let you know my thoughts more privately.

Cheers

Steve

At a glance this appears to be a standard term that is maybe worded differently.

I seems to point out the fact that they are deducting bonuses from rake and therefore not paying the player rakeback on his bonus, nor the affiliate rev share on the bonus.

Can we really expect to earn from free money?

The initial 75% must go up as each hand is played until the bonus is played through surely.

Sorry this can be all but standart from were i am standing i have several deals were i make a buck with rake of free money like it should be. If a room does not have money to spare i understand but offering something and making the affiliate pay OR use it to decrese its revenue its just lame....

Just discussed this with the top guy at BigBet and he said affiliates get paid on all freed bonus money.